/u/[deleted]'s posts in /r/AskHistorians
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How did the Tao Te Ching and the bible both come up with this conclusion about the right hand and the left hand?
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What did the people and authorities living in Rome and the Papacy in the year 1000 call the colloquial language they spoke? Did they still call it Latin, or something else?
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Would a commoner in the Middle Ages hold antipathy towards commoners of an historically 'rival kingdom' or is this the product of modern nationalist narratives?
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How warped/incorrect is our view of history due to the fact that "whoever wins writes the history books"
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